[Air-l] relation digital divide - knowledge gap

[Opgenhaffen Michaël]

Thanks Eszter, Redhika, Ulla, Danny, Paula and others for your help. 
I understand that my question was not well formulated, my excuses for that! 
 
This is quite a complex domain for me and I want to get it right. 
Therefore, an additional question:
 
If I got it right, the knowledge gap is the situation that some groups (high-class, white, rich, well-educated, ...) are getting smarter en smarter (because of there learning-abilities and -motivations and other benefits) and the other groups aren't, so that the gap between the info-rich and info-poor is widening (cfr Matthew-effect). Since the success of ICT, we can observe sort of a same distinction between those who can work with internet and computers and those who can't or won't. Those who can work with ict, benefit from that use, while the groups for who it could be great to work on (for closing the knowledge gap) aren't working with ict so that again, the gap is widening. 
 
I now i formulated it very briefly, but is this in general correct? 
 
My question is twofold:
1) Can i describe the difference in knowledge-output between users and non-users as 'a knowledge gap'? I thought I read it somewhere, but as i read your answers, i begin to think that the knowledge gap is more a social phenomenon and not the difference in knowledge-output between users and non-users. 
2) If this difference can not be called 'knowledge gap', which concept do you suggest to describe this possible difference in knowledge-output between users and non-users? 
 
Thankx a lot in advance. I know my English is not as good as my dutch is, but i hope clear anough to understand. 
 
Michaël 
 
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Michaël Opgenhaffen
Translation studies and journalism
Lessius school Antwerp
Belgium